SECTION 1 — 30 marks
1. Which of the following is not a form of electromagnetic radiation?
- A Beta
- B Gamma
- C Infrared
- D Ultraviolet
Ans A
2. The diagram represents the periodic table.
The shaded area is the
- A s-block
- B p-block
- C d-block
- D f-block.
Ans D
3. A representation of a d-orbital is shown.
The maximum number of electrons that can occupy this orbital is
- A 2
- B 4
- C 8
- D 10.
Ans A
4. For the reaction
BF3 + F−↓ BF4−
the three-dimensional arrangement of the bonds around the B atom changes from
- A trigonal pyramidal to square planar
- B trigonal pyramidal to tetrahedral
- C trigonal planar to square planar
- D trigonal planar to tetrahedral.
Ans D
5. Which of the following correctly shows the arrangement of the 3d electrons in the Ni2+
ion in[Ni(H2O)6]2+?
Ans B
6. Manganese has an oxidation number of +5 in
- A MnO4
- B MnO42
- C MnO43
- D MnO2
Ans C
7. When sulfur dioxide and oxygen react the following equilibrium is established.
2SO2(g) + O2(g) Ý 2SO3(g) ∆H = -197 kJ mol-1
Which line in the table is correct if the temperature of the equilibrium mixture is increased?
Ans A
8. H2CO3(aq) + CN(aq) Ý HCN(aq) + HCO3(aq)
Which line in the table correctly describes H2CO3(aq) and HCN(aq) in the above reaction?
Ans D
9. What is the concentration of hydroxide ions, in mol l-1
, in a solution with a pH of 8·5?
- A 8·5 × 10-6
- B 3·2 × 10-6
- C 8·5 × 10-9
- D 3·2 × 10-9
Ans B
10. Butanoic acid is a weak acid which dissociates as shown.
C3H7COOH(aq) + H2O(ℓ) Ý C3H7COO(aq) + H3O+(aq)
The equilibrium position can be shifted to the right by the addition of
- A a catalyst
- B sulfuric acid
- C sodium hydroxide
- D sodium butanoate.
Ans C
11. Which of the following salts forms an alkaline solution in water?
- A Sodium sulfate
- B Lithium chloride
- C Ammonium nitrate
- D Potassium propanoate
Ans D
12. Which of the following combinations would produce a buffer solution?
- A Sodium chloride and ammonia
- B Ammonium chloride and ammonia
- C Sodium chloride and sodium hydroxide
- D Ammonium chloride and sodium hydroxide
Ans B
13. For which of the following reactions would the value of ∆G° – ∆H° be closest to zero?
- A CaCO3(s) ↓ CaO(s) + CO2(g)
- B C(s) + H2O(g) ↓ CO(g) + H2(g)
- C Zn(s) + 2H+(aq) ↓ Zn2+(aq) + H2(g)
- D Cu2+(aq) + Mg(s) ↓ Mg2+(aq) + Cu(s)
Ans D
14. The following reaction is first order with respect to P and second order with respect to Q.
P + Q ↓ R + S
Which of the following statements is not correct?
- A The reaction is third order overall.
- B The reaction occurs by a simple one step mechanism.
- C The rate of the reaction decreases as the reaction proceeds.
- D The rate of the reaction will double if the initial concentration of P is doubled.
Ans B
15.
Which of the following types of hybridisation occur in the above compound?
- A sp3only
- B sp3and sp
- C sp3and sp2
- D sp3, sp2and sp
Ans B
16. Benzofuran is an important starting material in the manufacture of some medicines.
The gram formula mass of benzofuran is
- A 124 g
- B 120 g
- C 118 g
- D 114 g.
Ans C
17. The diagram represents one enantiomer of an optically active compound where W, X, Y andZ are four different groups.
Which of the following represents the other enantiomer of this compound?
Ans A
18. The most appropriate reactants for the synthesis of CH3CH2CH2CH2O Na+ are
- A sodium and butan-1-ol
- B sodium and butanoic acid
- C sodium hydroxide and butan-1-ol
- D sodium hydroxide and butanoic acid.
Ans A
19.
The above reaction is an example of
- A hydration
- B oxidation
- C hydrolysis
- D hydrogenation.
Ans C
20. 18 g of an oxide of copper contains 16 g of copper.
The empirical formula of this oxide is
- A Cu4O
- B Cu2O
- C CuO2
- D CuO4.
Ans B
21. A simplified mass spectrum of an organic compound is shown below.
Which of the following compounds could not have produced this spectrum?
- A CH3OCOCH3
- B CH3CH2COOH
- C CH3CH2CH2CH2NH2
- D CH3CH(OH)CH2CH3
Ans C
The infrared spectrum of eugenol would not be predicted to have an absorption in the
wavenumber range
- A 3100 – 3000 cm-1
- B 2962 – 2853 cm-1
- C 1730 – 1717 cm-1
- D 1150 – 1070 cm-1
Ans C
23. Salbutamol is used to treat asthma. It behaves like the body’s natural active compound by
triggering a response in the muscles of the airways.
Salbutamol is
- A an agonist
- B an antagonist
- C an inhibitor
- D a receptor.
Ans A
24. 200 cm3 of water is added to 50 cm3 of 2 mol l-1 sodium hydroxide solution.
The concentration of the diluted sodium hydroxide solution in mol l-1
, is
- A 0·5
- B 0·4
- C 0·2
- D 0·1.
Ans B
25. For solvent extraction from an aqueous solution, the solvent used should be immiscible with
water and relatively unreactive.
Which of the following would be the most suitable solvent?
- A CH3CH2CH2CH2CHO
- B CH3CH2OCH2CH2CH3
- C CH3CH2CH2CH2COOH
- D CH3CH(OH)CH2CH2CH3
Ans B
26. Which of the following is not a step in a recrystallisation technique?
- A Allow the filtrate to cool slowly.
- B Filter the hot solution to remove insoluble impurities.
- C Dissolve the crystals in a minimum of hot solvent.
- D Test the filtrate to ensure no more precipitate forms.
Ans D
27. The melting point of an impure substance was determined to be 111 °C – 114 °C.
After purification, the melting point should be
- A higher and over a wider range
- B higher and over a narrower range
- C lower and over a wider range
- D lower and over a narrower range.
Ans B
28. During the technique of heating to constant mass, the purpose of the desiccator is to
- A prevent reaction with oxygen in the air
- B remove water from the compound
- C prevent reabsorption of water
- D prevent decomposition.
Ans C
29. Using thin-layer chromatography, the components of a sample can be identified by Rf
values.Which of the following affects the Rf value for an individual component?
- A The distance moved by the solvent.
- B The concentration of the sample.
- C The length of TLC plate.
- D The solvent used.
Ans D
30. Which of the following diagrams shows the apparatus correctly set up for heating under
reflux?
Ans C
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